Sunday, March 15, 2015

Untangling Early Christian Attitudes Part 7

We come to the final installment of Untangling Early Christian Attitudes. The entire paper is now online. I really do welcome comments and questions. And, don't just assume that my opinions are gospel. Read for yourself and come to your own conclusions. If adding the bibliography would be helpful, I'd be happy to oblige. I've gotten some interesting feedback from a couple of seminary professors that I hope to form into a coherent blog post for later this week.  For now, however, I present the last of Untangling Early Christian Attitudes.
Now, it only remains to look at the changes within the early Christian church.  Christian ascetic teachings took root in the in the soil prepared for it by the stoic philosophers which was increasing in popularity among the Romans.[1]  Justin understood Christ’s comments about eunuchs to be an indication that men who could not remain chaste should castrate themselves,[2] which is asceticism taken to an extreme.  Marcion, 2nd century CE, was so acetic that he “prohibited marriage for all his followers.”  Cassianus and ascetics like him likely got their ideas on celibacy from the Gospel According to the Egyptians.  Bullough further points out that “the Syrian Christian Church of the third Century were unanimous in their testimony that the fundamental conception around which the Christian belief centered was the doctrine that Christian life was ‘unthinkable outside the bounds of virginity,’” quoting from Voobus.[3]  However, in the Didascalia Apostolorum, a work produced by the Syrian Christian Church in the third Century, the author indicates that Christian sons “should be married off as soon as possible to avoid the temptation of [fornication].”[4]  So, there seems to be contradictions as to what people thought even here.
Interestingly, many Christian writers felt that all sex, including in marriage was wrong.  Eustathius of Sebastia from the 4th Century CE, believed that married people could not receive salvation.  And, sexual abstinence became a requirement for church membership, but this requirement was removed by the late 4th to early 5th centuries.[5]  In monasticism, asceticism focused on same gender romance with St. Basil, 4th century advising the monks to avoid close relationships with others of their own age.  St Augustine recommended similar restrictions for nuns.[6]
Bullough points out that Christianity in the early years was not unified and that one should not take “Paul’s references to sex as a systematic or comprehensive treatment of sexual matters.”[7]  The followers of the Gnostic Prodicus felt that since the law had been abolished by Christ, they were free to enjoy adultery, nudity and “other sexual activites.”[8]  Clement also spoke about women who “play the man against nature, both being married and marrying women.”[9]  Augustine, who lived from 354 to 430CE, had a very close relationship with his mother, withdrew from women and had a close relationship with an unnamed male companion who would remain nameless, though this relationship may not have been sexual.[10] 
By the end of the second or beginning of the third century CE, the Chruch had begun to wipe out Gnosticism; however, it acquired an ascetic flavor in the process.  “Greggory of Nyssa, in the fourth century dismissed marriage as a sad tragedy.”[11] It seems to me that in an effort to gain converts, sometime after the second Century, theologians began using Greek Philosophy to explain the existence God.  Firmicus Maternus some time in the fourth century clearly felt that the galli were to be hated.  He claimed that their Goddess filled them with an “unholy spirit” which allowed them to predict the future, [12] which again sounds an awful lot like Paul in Romans 1. 
St John Chrysostom in the 4th Century CE, said regarding Romans 1, “No one can claim, [Paul] points out, that she came to this because she was precluded from lawful intercourse or that she was unable to satisfy her desire she fell into this monstrous depravity.  Only those possessing something can change it…”  He further elaborates on the men, “Likewise [Paul] casts aside with these words every excuse, charging that they not only had [legitimate] enjoyment and abandoned it, going after a different one, but that spurning the natural they pursued the unnatural.” So, Chrysostom seems to think that Paul is speaking of those who were already known to be heterosexual.  Boswell concludes from this that Paul only discussed “homosexual acts committed by heterosexual persons.”[13]
In conclusion, it seems obvious that Romans and early Christians would have known of age appropriate same-gender attraction as well as transgenders or eunuchs.  It also seems apparent that there were a plethora of words available for the Biblical authors to use to describe transgender people or homoromantic people, but they did not use any of these words.  This indicates to me that the Biblical writers likely had no concern about it.  It is also apparent that as asceticism increased in popularity among the pagans, it also increased among early Christians.  This, more than any apparent hatred of homosexuals by Christ or the disciples, seems to have lead to the eventual interpretations of Scripture in anti-homosexual ways.  Pagan asceticism also likely influenced ancient Judaism’s shift in attitudes.



[1] Cantarella pg 188, Greenburg, Brystryn pg523, Bullough pg 159
[2] Cantarella pg 207
[3] Bullough pg 184-86
[4] Methuen pg 27
[5] Greenburg, Brystryn pg 525
[6] Bullough pg 195
[7] Bullough pg 177
[8] Bullough pg 187
[9] Smith pg 240
[10] Murphy pg 64
[11] Bullough 188
[12] Roscoe pg 196
[13] Boswel pg 109

Friday, February 20, 2015

Untangling Early Christian Attitudes Part 6

Okay, here is the next to the last post on Untangling Early Christian Attitudes.  This one is a bit long and covers the earliest Christian writings, namely the New Testament.  I really appreciate everyone's patience with the way I am presenting this information.  I assume having a single post with a 30 page paper attached would be a bit intimidating and daunting for most folks.  I have discovered that some of the ways I described gender variance were confusing.  For my lack of sensitivity to the transgender community, I apologize.  I will use greater care in the future when quoting others who also lack sensitivity.  I have attempted to clean it up in this post.  Whatever you think of my writings, know that God loves you!

Notwithstanding the beliefs of many folks today, Scripture is not as clear as one might think.  While a complete exegesis on each of the places within scripture commonly used to “prove” that the Bible condemns homosexuality would be helpful, such is beyond the scope of this paper.  I will attempt instead to give a brief overview of alternative understandings of the main passages in question.
It is helpful to understand that vice lists were common during the first part of Common Era and were used by both philosophers and religious leaders.  Elliot indicates that the I Corinthians vice lists were probably not created by Paul, but were rather, “adopted and adapted by him from existing tradition.”[1] He further indicates that the vice lists used are “supplemental not essential.”[2]  Harrill points out that the I Timothy vice list resembles closely one from Pollux.[3]  He further points out that when Aristotle used a vice list similar to that used by Paul, Timaeus calls it “‘an effrontery’ and ‘untrustworthy’ a groundless attempt to slander an entire colony as a pack of rascals.”[4]  To use such a list as proof that Paul condemned homosexuality seems ill-advised.  Harrill also indicates that the author of I Timothy associates arsenokoitai with “the vice of exploitative, immoral sexual behavior with the vice of slave trading.”[5]  Harrill concludes that the vice list used in I Timothy matches that of Second Temple Jewish lists.[6]  So, the structure of vice lists already existed.  This, however, does not show that Paul did not intend to condemn homoromantic relationships. 
In order to show that Paul may not have been condemning homoromantic relationships, one needs to also look at the two words in question, malakovV and ajrsenokoivthV.  Without going into a great deal of detail, malakovV roughly indicates softness, and ajrsenokoivthV roughly indicates a man in a bed.  There is very little agreement among the various translations of the New Testament as to how best to define the words.  Elliot indicates that one of the problems with translating the words to indicate homosexuality “offers a classic case of eisegesis displacing sound exegesis, inadvertently reading into the text what supposedly is to be elicited from a text.”[7]  While malakovV could be rich men,[8] it “does not mean ‘homosexual,’ and it most often denotes some type of moral wakness.”[9]  One of the difficulties with malakovV and comments about effeminacy is that in conversations like the one Lycinus describes, the man who is really interested in attracting women uses cosmetics and is considered soft.  When Juvenal uses it, he uses it to describe the cinaedus.  So, it appears that the word does not necessarily indicate passive sex between men.[10]  The problem with cinaedus is that Martial uses it to describe a man’s concubine who also fathers a child with the man’s wife. But Juvenal uses it to describe men who are in “reciprocal” sexual relationships with other men.[11]  So, malakovV seems strange for Paul to use if he means homosexual. 
AjrsenokoivthV is just as confusing.  “We must remember that Paul was working in a culture in which the great majority of people were illiterate,”[12] which could indeed be why ajrsenokoivthV was not previously used in writing.  One should use caution when trying to understand amalgamated words.  If we were to read a letter about cannibals who are “eaters of men,” then read another letter about a woman who was a “man-eater,” one could easily conclude that she was a cannibal.  However, “man-eater” when used in slang refers to a woman who is aggressive and beautiful.  Harrill goes so far as to say, “the attempt to define a word by the etymology of its component parts proves in the end linguistically illegitimate.”[13]  Elliott points out that ajrsenokoivthV “could denote ‘females lying/sleeping (around) with males’ as well as ‘males lying’”[14]  Therefore, Paul’s words in I Corinthians 6:9 and I Timothy 1:10 do not necessarily point to homoromantic couples. 
It may also be helpful to look at words which were used at the time of Paul’s writings that would be equivalent to the modern terms for gay, lesbian, or transgender.  A homoromantic woman would have been called tribas, hetairistriai, fricatrix, birago, parthenai, etc. [15]  Gay men have more names.  A homosexual man or transgender may have been called eromenos, aitas, kleinos, erastes, eispnelos, philetor, androgynos, kinaidos, concubinus, pathici, felatores, irrumator, cinaedus, mollis, tener, frater, soror, amator, puer, pedicare and  pedico (during the later Empire), exoleti, draucus, galli, spintria, pullus, pusio, delicates, tener, debilis, effeminatus, discinctus, morbous, impudicitia, etc.[16]
Additionally, Paul’s comments in Romans 1:26-27 have typically been offered up as proof positive that Scripture condemns homosexuality; however, this may not be the case.  Interestingly, the words used by Charicles in his prayer to Aphrodite echo amazingly the words of Paul.  He uses phrases like “remain male, as they were born to be,” “sacred law of necessity,” “inborn nature,” and like Paul includes women in his discussion when he says, “neither should the female grow unnaturally masculine.”  He also refers to men who prefer women as following, “the laws of nature,” and those that prefer members of the same gender (though here it is important to note that his opponent is a pederast) as having, “transgressed the laws of nature.” Charicles also denounces lesbianism even to the point of using “lesbianism” which Lycinus hated to repeat and indicated it was rarely used.[17]  Also, Origen may have had a good deal of influence as to how people understood Paul’s comments.  “Origen, the earliest commentator on Romans, believes that Paul refers to natural law… and to Mosaic Law.”[18]  Origen was a eunuch – a follower of Valentinus.[19]  So Moore calls him a famous transgender person in the early church.[20]  It would therefore seem to me that if Paul intended to condemn homosexuals, Origen would likely have said so. 
Paul may also be referring to common cult practices which he likely abhorred.  Taylor says,
“The most famous instance [of cult behaviors leading to a ban of the cult] is the persecution of the Italian cult of Dionysus in 186 BCE, recorded in book 39 of Livy’s Roman history.  Among the accusations leveled at the participants was an orgy of homosexual activity among both sexes.  The cult involved more than seven thousand men and women, many of them plebeians; its leaders were of that class.  The Roman state arrested and executed a majority of the participants and virtually eradicated the cult (39.13-18).”[21] 

Another good description of cultic practices which seem to match Paul’s comments in Romans can be found in Martin.[22]  So, it seems to me that in Romans 1, Paul is discussing fertility cults.  Taylor offers further illumination on this concept.  She indicates that the priests of certain fertility cults, “known as the Galli and Metagyrtia, respectively – were self-castrated, transvestic, and – if we believe the sources – pathically oriented.”[23]  So, again, it seems that Paul is speaking of cultic activities which lead to self-castration or specifically fertility cults.
Oddly enough, Miller claims that the ancients had no concept of homosexual attraction.[24]  To support his understanding that Romans 1:26 doesn’t refer to female homosexuality, he points out that “classical authors tended to compare the two forms of homosexuality with the two sides of heterosexuality rather than with each other.”  So, Paul would not have been following the norm if he compares male homosexuality with female homosexuality.  He concludes that Romans 1:26 is a reference to all “non-coital” heterosexual sex.[25]  This may mesh well with the Wisdom of Solomon 14:23-27 which sounds a great deal like Paul in Romans 1 with idolatry being the “beginning cause and end of every evil.”  So, sometimes when an English translation seems clear, the meaning behind the passage occasionally gets left behind.
Having discussed, if not completely disproven, the passages attributed to Paul, there may be some passages attributed to Jesus which may shed light on the developing attitude towards same sex romance in the early Christian communities.  For example, Jesus’ comments about a man[26] carrying water jar in Mark 14:13 and Luke 22:10 would be out of place since only women carry water jars.[27]  Men carried water or wine skins.[28]  However, in Matthew 26:18, the man is not longer carrying a water jar.[29]  Mark generally considered earlier. Luke and Matt around the same time, however if Luke is earlier, this shows a change by the end of first century leading away from acceptance or tolerance of homosexuality.  This may also be attested to in the change of the centurion’s precious servant (Luke 7:2-10) into his daughter (Matt 8:5-13).  Possibly trying to distance selves from other cults where homosexuality was not a problem or to avoid being satirized by cults who did have issues with homosexuality. Jars are only carried by women in Thomas and John.  (John 4:28, Thomas logion 97)  Taylor also gives some good evidence of “the existence of a subculture” which may have been why there was a man carrying a water jar in Mark and Luke.[30]
There may also be other evidence of early acceptance of other gender variances by Christianity in another passage attributed to Jesus.  When Jesus speaks of eunuchs who are born that way, made that way by other men, and make themselves that way for the kingdom of heaven in Matthew 19:12, he may be referring to galli.  If he is explaining that galli are holy, such an indication would be supported by Taylor who says, “The Galli, like their Indian counterparts [hijras], benefited from an aura of religious authority.”  Also, Taylor further says, “Werner Krenkel presents evidence that a tax was levied on Galli as male prostitutes.”  She further presents evidence that Roman authorities were likely concerned that such cults were “seductive” to the citizenry. [31]  Another indication that Jesus would likely not have had issues with gender blurring is his comment, “when you make the male and the female into a single one, so that the male is not male and the female not female … then you will enter [the kingdom]” (Gospel of Thomas logion 22).
So, it seems that there is some indication that Jesus knew of and did not have problems with homoromantic and transgender people.  Yet, there are more possible indications that the early Christians did not have an issue with homoromantic people.  Leviticus is not used to condemn homoromantic folks.[32] Leviticus was used by Jewish people to condemn same-sex behaviors in men and later women, but the early Christians did not use it.  Also, the Epistle of Barnabas 10:6 condemns pedophilia but not age appropriate same-sex contact.[33]  So, even when specific sexual acts are condemned, homoromantic couples of appropriate ages are not.  


[1] Elliott pg 22
[2] Elliott pg 22
[3] Harrill pg 99
[4] Harrill pg 101
[5] Harrill pg 110
[6] Harrill pg 122
[7] Elliott pg 23
[8] Elliott pg 24
[9] Fone pg 29
[10] Fone pgs 64-65
[11] Taylor pgs 350, 355
[12] Esler pg 2
[13] Harrill pg 96
[14] Elliott pg 29 quoting Boswell
[15] Canterella pg 87, Downing in Lesbian Histories and Cultures pg 46
[16] Fone pg 19, 41, 47, 50, 51, Taylor pg 329, 338, 352, 356, 360, 366, Roscoe pg 199, Verstraete pg 228, Satlow pg 18, Smith pg 235, Richlin pg 526, 530, 531
[17] Fone pgs 64-65
[18] Brooten pg 267
[19] Greenburg, Brystryn pg 525
[20] More pg 3
[21] Taylor 329
[22] Martin pg 97
[23] Taylor 331
[24] Miller pg 1
[25] Miller pg 5, 11
[26] This seems likely to be a man or transsexual because of aujtw/ which is dative and either masculine or neuter.
[27] Gundry pg 821, Lane pg 499
[28] Mann pg 565, Gundry pg 821, Lane pg 499
[29] Albright, Mann pg 318
[30] Taylor pg 327
[31] Taylor 326
[32] Elliot pg 30
[33] Elliot pg 34

Tuesday, February 17, 2015

Untangling Early Christian Attitudes Part 5

I know that this study is taking a while to go through; but, please, bear with me.  To understand why attitudes are what they are today, we must understand where they were previously and what led to the changes.  With that in mind, I present the 5th installment of Untangling Early Christian Attitudes. Thanks for plugging away at it with me!

So, what was the Roman attitude towards homosexuality?  That is a complicated question with varying answers.  Fone concludes that homosexuality was only looked down upon when one partner in a male relationship chose to only to take the passive role or acted effeminately.[1]  While, this may be true to an extent, it seems to me that in a time when people were insecure because of changes within the Empire, including a decreasing population within Rome herself, the leaders of the Empire desired to control the population and see it increase.  This explains at least one aspect of how the attitudes of the early Christian church were formed. 
Another important aspect of how these attitudes were formed comes from the Jewish attitudes.  Given the various personalities within the Hebrew Bible who seemed not to be completely heterosexual (Jonathan, David, Daniel, etc.) and the apparent changing attitudes within religious hierarchy (II Isaiah allowing eunuchs back into the congregation), it would seem that in the 4th and 3rd centuries BCE, the Jewish people were at least tolerant of some diversity.  However, by the 1st century BCE, certain Jewish people are following the ascetic attitudes.
For instance, Philo of Alexandria who lived from 20 BCE to 50 CE, appeared to have problems with homosexual relationships.  Szesnat indicates that Philo wrote mostly about slave boys or adolescents in a passive sexual role who turn into some sort of a combination of male and female, or are reduced to the status of a girl.  He also says that the lovers of such males waste away with disease and go sterile.[2]  Philo also made a lot of connections to the story of Sodom and apparently felt that the reason for its destruction was male-male sex[3], even though that is neither what the Bible indicates nor what the Rabbis taught.[4]  He further indicated that because Sodomites were so caught up in this type of sex, those males also became sterile.  The fact that Cantarella translates him as saying, “men mounted males” may indicate that he was talking about pederasty as Szsnat indicates.  She goes on to quote him as saying, “Pederasty or adultery or rape of a young person, even of a female, for I need not mention the case of a male …,” which seems to indicate that he is not speaking of homoromantic love between two non-minors of the same sex.[5]  To show how this may have had less to do with homophobia and more to do with asceticism, Philo also rejected heterosexual intercourse with barren women because it was non-reproductive.[6]  So, Philo, who was not a spiritual leader, but rather a philosopher, may have been following the stoics and other ascetics in the formation of his attitudes.
Another important individual within Judaism to consider as reflecting the attitudes of Jews of his time is Josephus Flavius who lived from 37 CE to 100 CE.  He insisted that the only sexual relation allowed by Torah was procreative between husband and wife.  He was largely ignored by the Jewish community; however, Christians copied his works frequently.[7]  Like Philo, he also felt Sodom was destroyed due to homosexual violence.[8]
So, what led to the attitudes of Philo and Josephus?  There may be some indication that the specific objection that Josephus and Philo had was one of pederasty in that The Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs indicates in The Testament of Levi that “Priests will be idolaters, adulterers, moneygrubbers, lascivious and violators of children (paidophthoroi)” (Testament of Levi 17:11)  Cantarella uses this as an explanation of why Jews hated homosexuality.[9]  By the time of the Talmud, the Rabbis were trying to explain why Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 are worded the way they are and determined that these the first passage condemned only the insertive partner in male-male relations.  They looked to Deuteronomy (evidently verses 22:5, 23:17-18) to explain why the receptive partner was also condemned.[10]  Also, it is often said that “Israelites are not suspected of either sodomy or bestiality” (Talmud, Kiddushin 82a).  Yet, Rabbi Yehudah felt it necessary to include a rule in the Mishnah saying that “two unmarried men” should not “[sleep] under a single blanket.”[11]  If there were no chance that Israeli men could be attracted to each other, why the law?
As for attitudes towards female homoromantic relationships, there appears to be a change.  For instance, Talmudic Rabbis question whether or not Lesbianism is harlotry.  Satlow explains, “According to the Tosefta, ‘If a woman ‘rubs’ with her minor son, and he penetrates her, the School of Shammai disqualifies her [from marrying a priest], but the School of Hillel permit it.’”[12]  But, why she isn’t stoned for having sex with her son is beyond me.  The Palestinian Talmud includes a second passage indicating that a woman who rubs with another woman is forbidden to marry a priest by the School of Shammai, while the School of Hillel permits it. [13]   But by the 4th century CE, lesbianism “condemned” in the Midrash in the discussion of what Leviticus 18:3 means when commanding the Israelites not to do like they do in Canaan or Egypt “a man would marry a man and a woman would marry a woman” in Sifra (Archarei Mot 9:8) 
So, it appears that the Rabbis, in addition to Jewish philosophers, were becoming more and more ascetic.  Fone indicates that Jewish writers in this period were becoming so ascetic that they rewrote the 10 commandments to include a commandment against sex between husband and wife that was not intended to lead to begetting children and against same gendered sex.[14]  So, this explains a general shift in attitudes towards homoromantic relationships as well as transgendered relationships.  However, one should also consider whether or not a shift occurred within the Christian community.




[1] Fone pg 60
[2] Szesnat Gay histories and cultures pg 685
[3] Fone pg 89
[4] Bullough pg 182
[5]Cantarella pg 199-200
[6] Miller pg 10
[7] Szesnat in Gay Histories and Cultures pg 502
[8] Cantarella pg 200
[9] Cantarella pg 201
[10] Cantarella pg 198
[11] Satlow pg 18-19
[12] Satlow pg 15-16
[13] Satlow pg 15-16, Downing in Lesbian History and Culture pg 49
[14] Fone pg 87

Friday, February 6, 2015

Untangling Early Christian Attitudes Part 4

Greetings all!  For health reasons, among others, I put the blog aside for a while, but feel the urge to finish.  Since I know that an 18 page blog post would choke some folks and bore others, I will continue to post a few pages at a time.  The blog posts that proceed this one are the earlier parts of this paper.  In order to understand how we got to the anti-homosexual attitudes that still exist today, it is helpful, in my opinion to understand where they came from.  The following section of the paper is an attempt to explain the changing of attitudes towards homosexuality from supportive to against during the switch over from the Roman Republic to the Roman Empire.  The attitudes for or against homosexuality don't fit perfectly into the switch over, but we see the attitude against homosexuality gaining a foothold shortly after the Roman Empire begins, so it is an easy frame of reference.

So, the question that begs to be asked is, “What caused the change?”  While no one has a clear answer, declining birth rate may have begun to cause problems for homoromantic couples, while at the same time beginning to lead to a condemnation of abortion and other forms of birth control.[1]  The birth rate was on the decline in the Roman Empire around the turn of the Millennium.[2]  Since Roman leaders needed to keep their armies up, the acetic traditions and homosexuality, as well as non-reproductive sexual contact, would likely have been problematic for the Empire.  The leaders would likely have thus started a campaign to reduce asceticism, abortion, and exclusive homosexuality.
Plutarch in the 1st century CE wrote that male relationships were not based on love.  He referred to them as “the lowest depth of vice,” so we can see the beginnings of a swing from acceptance to rejection.  Though I am unsure whether or not he was referring to relationships with the men both being of the same age or pederasty.[3]  And, Pliny the Elder, also from the 1st century, “condemns pathic behaviors as ‘persersions of sex’ … achieved ‘by crime against nature,’” and “Seneca levels the same criticism at transvestitism.”[4]  Ovid wrote at least one poem where a woman who loved another woman was unhappy at the prospect and complained that such was not the case in the animal world.  Obviously Ovid didn’t know animals or at least the character didn’t.[5]  So, a change appears to occur shortly after the start of the Common Era. 
Roman law was going through a metamorphosis as well.  The Lex Scantinia and the Lex Julia neither one specifically mention non-abusive same-gendered romance.  The first was used against rape, pedophilia/pederasty, etc.  The latter was specifically against adultery, though it was thought to have been used in some charges against same-gendered adultery, this does not indicate that it was a law against homoromantic couples.[6]  The law also indicated, “A married woman’s sexual involvement with another woman was defined as adultery.”[7]  So, while the law was going through a change, it was not a radical departure.  Clement of Alexandria in second century CE claimed that homosexuality was not illegal in Rome in his lifetime.[8]  These laws, which admittedly were written in the 3rd and 1st centuries BCE, appeared to be receiving more use and attention against non-heterosexual couples during the latter part of the 2nd century CE. 
In addition to the use of laws, physicians’ attitudes were changing.  Soranus, the physician of the first century BCE mentioned earlier, was leading the revolution of sexual abstinence.  He indicates that the loss of semen is unhealthy for the body.[9]  Soranus also considered homosexuality a disease.[10]  By the first century of the Common Era, “Musonious Rufus taught that sexual relations are reprehensible even in marriage unless they had a reproductive purpose.  For the same reason – the fact that it was sterile – homosexual intercourse was to be condemned.”[11]  So, while there were folks who had no problems either with or expressing homoerotic love, some did.  One must be careful to weigh all of the factors when determining the attitudes of an entire people.
Now, the laws really begin changing.  By the 3rd century CE, “Emperor Philip attempted to outlaw homosexual prostitution.”[12]  While one may be tempted to claim that clearly homosexuality was outlawed by this, Justinian’s code in 534CE made suprum cum masculis “illicit sex with males” illegal indicating that until then not all sex between males was illegal.[13]  Sadly, I could find little information about sex between women during this change.  While the Roman laws against homosexuality were put in place by Christian Emperors, this does not indicate that pagans “of the same class” were any more accepting of same-gender romance by the time the laws were enacted.  This would likely be due to the ascetic movement within pagan circles.[14]  Boswell also notes that Roman legal cases against homosexuality increased in the third century CE, but all forms of homosexuality were outlawed in the sixth century.[15]




[1] Pandora’s daughters 128-29
[2] Greenburg pg 160, Miller pg 9
[3] Fone 61
[4] Taylor 325
[5] Brooten pg 274
[6] Richlin pg 570
[7] Downing in LHC pg 47
[8] Fone pg 46
[9] Cantarella pg 189
[10] Taylor 348
[11] Cantarella pg 190
[12] Fone 46
[13] Crompton 143
[14] Greenburg, Bystryn pg 527-28
[15] Boswell pg 70-71